If the Slate PU came only as an ICE, I would buy one.

[Daemoch]

It totally didn't register at first that you actually just said Car B has the more reliable drivetrain than Car A.

...My work here is done.

Putting on my Rules Not-Z hat:
I hate to side with the person that isn't getting the data right, but you didnt specify if you meant by pre or post failure and raw number (of how many) or percent.

So assuming identical starting volumes for A and B, if A only ever has a single problem, and its 100% likely to be the drivetrain, then its rate of cause of failure due to drivetrain is 100% ....so if we only measure post-failure, then yes, B has a "more reliable drivetrain" since it has a very small % of failures caused by drivetrain.

Even though B is the most unreliable POS ever made.

I'm going back to my popcorn while I watch this trainwreck.

 

[KevinRS]

Putting on my Rules Not-Z hat:
I hate to side with the person that isn't getting the data right, but you didnt specify if you meant by pre or post failure and raw number (of how many) or percent.

So assuming identical starting volumes for A and B, if A only ever has a single problem, and its 100% likely to be the drivetrain, then its rate of cause of failure due to drivetrain is 100% ....so if we only measure post-failure, then yes, B has a "more reliable drivetrain" since it has a very small % of failures caused by drivetrain.

Even though B is the most unreliable POS ever made.

I'm going back to my popcorn while I watch this trainwreck.

Don't bring this back to life

 

[Driven5]

...but you didnt specify if you meant by pre or post failure and raw number (of how many) or percent.

I have no idea what you're talking about here. The scenario included the necessary relevant percentages and post-failure verbiage... Not that pre vs post failure actually matters for the purposes of this exercise.

So assuming identical starting volumes for A and B, if A only ever has a single problem, and its 100% likely to be the drivetrain, then its rate of cause of failure due to drivetrain is 100% ....so if we only measure post-failure, then yes, B has a "more reliable drivetrain" since it has a very small % of failures caused by drivetrain.

I have no idea what you're talking about here either. The 'rate of cause of failure' you are referencing is nothing more than the mode failure percentage... Which while it is one factor in the 'reliability' equation, it is NOT in and of itself a measure of reliability... And thus cannot be (validly) evaluated on a stand-alone basis as attempted above. Garbage in equals garbage out.